MBA4U.in - CAT Practice Mock Test 5

Full-Length Static CAT-Style Practice Paper with Answer Key & Detailed Solutions

Instructions

Total duration: 120 minutes. Suggested sectional time: 40 minutes each for VARC, DILR and QA.

MCQ: +3 for a correct answer and -1 for an incorrect answer. TITA/non-MCQ: +3 for a correct answer and no negative marking.

This is a static practice paper. No interactive response fields are included.

Difficulty labels (Easy / Moderate / Difficult) are included only for practice analytics.

All passages, datasets and questions in this paper are freshly written for MBA4U.in and are not reproduced from CAT or the supplied earlier MBA4U practice papers.

Attempt the full paper under timed conditions before checking the answer key and detailed solutions.

Section I – Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC)

24 Questions | 40 Minutes

RC Passage 1 – The Economics of Empty Seats

Passage difficulty: Moderate-Difficult

An empty seat on a departing train, aircraft or theatre performance is unlike unsold inventory in a warehouse. Once the service begins, the opportunity to sell that seat disappears. This perishability is one reason service providers use different prices for what appears to be the same unit: a seat bought three months in advance may cost less than the adjacent seat bought on the morning of departure.

The usual criticism is that variable pricing is unfair because two customers receive nearly identical physical service while paying different amounts. Yet uniform pricing also distributes advantages unevenly. If every seat is sold at a single low fare, popular departures may sell out quickly and favour customers able to book early. If every seat is sold at a high fare, capacity may remain unused even when some travellers would have valued it at a lower price. Price differentiation attempts to match a perishable capacity with customers whose willingness to pay and flexibility differ.

This does not make every pricing rule defensible. A system may exploit emergencies, hide mandatory charges until late in the purchase process, or use opaque personal data to estimate how much an individual can be made to pay. The economic logic of variable pricing therefore does not settle the ethical question. It merely shows that the relevant comparison is not between discrimination and a perfectly neutral alternative; different pricing systems allocate scarce, expiring capacity in different ways.

A useful evaluation asks at least three questions: does the rule increase utilisation, are the categories used to distinguish customers reasonably connected to cost or flexibility, and can customers understand the rule well enough to alter their choices? A fare that is cheaper for travellers who accept a non-refundable ticket is different in character from a hidden surcharge revealed only after substantial time has been invested in booking. Both vary price, but they vary it through different mechanisms.

Q1. The passage’s central argument is that variable pricing should be evaluated primarily by: [MCQ | Moderate]

whether every customer pays exactly the same fare
how it allocates perishable capacity, the basis of differentiation, and the transparency of the rule
whether it always produces the lowest possible average price
whether customers approve of paying different amounts for identical seats

Q2. Why does the author mention a single low uniform fare? [MCQ | Moderate]

To show that uniform pricing can itself create allocation advantages for some customers
To prove that low fares always reduce utilisation
To argue that advance booking should be prohibited
To establish that willingness to pay can be measured perfectly

Q3. Which practice would the author most clearly distinguish from ordinary advance-purchase discounting? [MCQ | Difficult]

Charging less for a ticket that cannot be refunded
Offering a lower price on an off-peak departure
Using hidden personal data to infer a customer’s maximum willingness to pay
Charging more for a larger seat

Q4. The phrase ‘perishable capacity’ refers to capacity that: [MCQ | Easy]

physically deteriorates during use
cannot be stored for sale after the service opportunity passes
is available only to customers who book early
must be priced below cost to avoid waste

RC Passage 2 – What Counts as a Clock?

Passage difficulty: Moderate

Before mechanical clocks became widespread, communities did not lack ways of organising time. Bells, shadows, meal routines, prayer schedules and the sequence of agricultural tasks divided the day. What changed with increasingly accurate clocks was not the invention of timekeeping but the ability to detach a time signal from a local event. Noon could be defined by a standard reference rather than by the moment when the sun reached its highest point in a particular town.

Railways made this distinction consequential. A timetable linking distant stations becomes difficult to operate when each town keeps its own solar time. Standard time was therefore partly an infrastructure of coordination. It allowed departures, labour shifts and commercial contracts to refer to the same sequence of hours across space. The clock did not merely measure an independently existing social rhythm; widespread clock use helped create activities that could be synchronised at larger scales.

Histories of time discipline sometimes describe this development as a simple triumph of punctuality over pre-industrial looseness. That contrast is too crude. Agricultural work could be highly disciplined even when organised by weather and task rather than by minutes. Conversely, clock time did not eliminate flexibility: factories created breaks, grace periods and shift changes, all of which depended on negotiated conventions. The important transformation was not from disorder to order but from one kind of coordination to another.

Seen this way, a clock is both a measuring device and a social interface. Its usefulness depends on shared agreement about what its reading will govern. Accuracy matters, but accuracy without coordination has limited social value; perfectly synchronised clocks would accomplish little if institutions did not attach schedules and obligations to them.

Q5. The main claim of the passage is that accurate clocks became socially transformative because they: [MCQ | Moderate]

replaced all older forms of time discipline
allowed coordination to be standardised across locations and institutions
made agricultural work less dependent on weather
proved that local solar time was scientifically incorrect

Q6. The railway example primarily illustrates that: [MCQ | Easy]

local solar time becomes inconvenient when activities must be coordinated across places
railways were the first institutions to use schedules
mechanical clocks were invented for transport companies
standard time reduced the physical distance between towns

Q7. Which statement is least compatible with the author’s argument? [MCQ | Difficult]

Task-based work can be disciplined without minute-by-minute scheduling
Clock time can support negotiated conventions as well as strict punctuality
The spread of clocks transformed the scale at which activities could be coordinated
Pre-mechanical communities were largely unordered because they lacked accurate clocks

Q8. Calling the clock a ‘social interface’ emphasises that: [MCQ | Moderate]

clock faces should be designed for public display
a time reading gains practical force through shared institutional conventions
different societies require mechanically different clocks
accuracy is irrelevant to timekeeping

RC Passage 3 – Laboratory Animals and External Validity

Passage difficulty: Difficult

Laboratory experiments gain power by controlling conditions. A researcher can standardise temperature, diet, lighting and genetic background so that a difference between two groups is more plausibly attributed to the treatment being studied. Yet the same control that strengthens a causal claim inside the experiment can weaken confidence about whether the result will hold outside it.

This problem is often discussed as external validity. Suppose a drug reduces a symptom in genetically similar mice housed at the same temperature and fed the same diet. The experiment may be internally rigorous, but real populations vary. A treatment effect can interact with age, environment, coexisting conditions or prior exposure. Increasing sample size within one narrow laboratory setting improves precision about that setting; it does not automatically reveal how the treatment behaves across different settings.

One response is deliberate heterogeneity: researchers may replicate the study across laboratories, strains or environmental conditions. At first glance this seems to introduce noise. In fact, it can answer a different question. A result that remains visible across controlled variations may be less precise in any one setting but more informative about robustness. The design sacrifices some local uniformity to learn whether the effect travels.

There is no universal rule that heterogeneous designs are superior. Early mechanistic studies may reasonably seek tight control, while later translational studies may need broader variation. The mistake is to treat ‘more controlled’ and ‘more realistic’ as points on a single scale of scientific quality. They serve different inferential purposes, and a good research programme often requires both.

Q9. The passage’s central distinction is between: [MCQ | Moderate]

animal studies and human studies
precision within a controlled setting and robustness across varying settings
large samples and small samples
mechanistic research and unethical research

Q10. Why does the author say that a larger sample in one narrow setting may be insufficient? [MCQ | Difficult]

Because larger samples always reduce internal validity
Because precision about one setting does not reveal interactions with unrepresented conditions
Because genetically similar animals cannot be used for causal inference
Because external validity depends only on the number of laboratories

Q11. Deliberate heterogeneity is presented as useful when researchers want to know whether: [MCQ | Moderate]

the treatment effect survives variation in relevant conditions
all laboratories can produce numerically identical estimates
environmental variation can be eliminated
sample size can be reduced without loss of precision

Q12. Which statement best captures the author’s overall position? [MCQ | Difficult]

Realism should always be maximised, even in early mechanistic studies
Control and heterogeneity answer different scientific questions and should be matched to the inferential goal
External validity is impossible to assess experimentally
A study is scientifically strong only if it produces the same numerical effect in every setting

RC Passage 4 – Subscription, Ownership and Access

Passage difficulty: Moderate-Difficult

Digital subscription services are often described as replacing ownership with access. The phrase is convenient but incomplete. Buyers of physical media never possessed unlimited rights: copyright restricted copying and resale rules varied. What changes under subscription is less the existence of limits than the location of control. Continued access may depend on account status, platform licensing, software compatibility and the provider’s decision to keep a work in its catalogue.

For users, this arrangement offers substantial benefits. A monthly payment can open a catalogue far larger than most individuals could afford to purchase item by item. Search, synchronisation and recommendation reduce the effort of managing a collection. But convenience can obscure a shift in durability. A purchased book may survive the closure of the shop that sold it; a licensed digital title may disappear when a contract changes even if the user’s device still functions.

The usual debate contrasts nostalgic ownership with efficient access. A more useful distinction is between consumption that is temporary by nature and consumption that carries archival expectations. Many people do not need permanent possession of every film they watch. Yet scholars, libraries, musicians and collectors may care about stable access over decades. A single distribution model can therefore serve casual use well while serving preservation poorly.

This is why digital preservation cannot simply be left to consumer subscription markets. Preservation requires institutions that can migrate formats, maintain metadata and retain lawful copies even when commercial demand is small. Access and preservation overlap, but they are not identical goals. A platform can be excellent at delivering what is popular today while being structurally unsuited to guaranteeing what will remain available tomorrow.

Q13. The passage argues that the key difference between ownership and subscription lies mainly in: [MCQ | Moderate]

whether copyright exists
where control over continued access is located
whether users pay any money
whether content can be searched

Q14. The example of a purchased book surviving the closure of a shop is used to illustrate: [MCQ | Easy]

physical books are always cheaper than subscriptions
ownership can provide durability independent of the original seller
digital catalogues contain too many works
bookshops have stronger preservation duties than libraries

Q15. Which user would most strongly expose the limitation identified in the third paragraph? [MCQ | Moderate]

A viewer who watches one comedy once
A commuter who wants temporary access to playlists
A researcher who needs dependable access to a specialised work twenty years later
A user who prefers search to manual filing

Q16. Which inference is most consistent with the final paragraph? [MCQ | Difficult]

Commercial popularity is sufficient to ensure long-term preservation
A service optimised for present consumption may not create the institutional conditions required for archival continuity
Subscription platforms should be legally prohibited from removing titles
Preservation and access are unrelated activities

Q17. Choose the option that best summarises the paragraph below.

A policy can be easy to state yet difficult to administer because real cases contain borderline situations. Writing a longer rulebook does not necessarily solve the problem: every added distinction creates new boundaries. Effective administration therefore depends not only on detailed rules but also on procedures for handling ambiguity consistently and reviewing exceptional cases. [MCQ | Moderate]

Longer rulebooks always create more administrative errors.
Administrative quality depends on both rules and reliable procedures for dealing with cases that rules do not resolve cleanly.
Borderline cases should be excluded from policy evaluation.
Simple policies are preferable because complex rules cannot be enforced.

Q18. Choose the option that best summarises the paragraph below.

Forecast accuracy is often judged by average error, but averages can hide asymmetry. A hospital that overestimates demand may waste some staffing cost; one that underestimates demand may leave patients untreated. Two forecasting systems with the same average error can therefore have very different practical value when the consequences of errors differ by direction. [MCQ | Difficult]

Forecasts should never be evaluated using numerical error measures.
Average error is sufficient only when overestimation and underestimation have similar consequences.
Hospitals should deliberately overestimate demand.
Any forecasting system that underestimates demand is inaccurate.

Q19. Choose the sentence that best completes the paragraph.

Public signs are often designed as though reading occurs under ideal conditions. In reality, people encounter them while walking, driving, carrying luggage or searching in unfamiliar surroundings. A sign that is legible at close range may fail when seen briefly from a distance. ______ [MCQ | Moderate]

Sign design should therefore be tested in the conditions in which people actually need to use it.
Most public signs should contain more information so that users can make better choices.
Digital displays are always more legible than printed signs.
People who know a city well rarely need directional information.

Q20. Choose the sentence that best completes the paragraph.

When a museum digitises a fragile object, the digital copy can be inspected by thousands of people without additional physical handling. But the copy is not a replacement for every research purpose: colour calibration may be imperfect, texture may be flattened, and hidden surfaces may not be captured. ______ [MCQ | Difficult]

Digitisation can expand access while still leaving some forms of inquiry dependent on the physical object.
Museums should stop displaying fragile objects once they are scanned.
Digital images are useful only for casual visitors.
Physical objects always communicate more information than digital records.

Q21. Five sentences are given below. Four form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and enter its number.
1. A password manager reduces the need to remember many separate passwords.
2. It can also generate long random passwords that users would be unlikely to invent unaided.
3. Some websites ask users to choose profile photographs during registration.
4. The security benefit, however, depends heavily on protecting the manager’s master credential.
5. Concentrating many credentials in one tool therefore changes rather than eliminates the user’s security problem. [TITA | Moderate]

Q22. Five sentences are given below. Four form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and enter its number.
1. A drought index compresses several observations into a single number.
2. Different indices may combine rainfall, soil moisture and evaporation in different ways.
3. Farmers sometimes change crops in response to expected market prices.
4. The choice of index can therefore affect when an official drought is declared.
5. Users should know which variables and time periods an index emphasises before comparing regions. [TITA | Moderate]

Q23. Five sentences are given below. Four form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and enter its number.
1. Peer review asks specialists to evaluate work before publication.
2. Reviewers can identify missing evidence, unclear reasoning and relevant prior research.
3. Journals also differ greatly in subscription price and publication frequency.
4. Because reviewers may disagree, editorial decisions cannot be reduced to a simple vote count.
5. Peer review is therefore better understood as structured criticism than as a guarantee of correctness. [TITA | Difficult]

Q24. Five sentences are given below. Four form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and enter its number.
1. Flood maps often show areas expected to be inundated under specified scenarios.
2. Their apparent precision can encourage users to treat the boundary line as a sharp division between safe and unsafe land.
3. In reality, modelling assumptions and local drainage can shift risk gradually across space.
4. Property taxes are commonly assessed using land and building values.
5. The map is most useful when its boundary is interpreted as a planning estimate rather than a physical wall. [TITA | Difficult]

Section II – Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR)

22 Questions | 40 Minutes

SET 1: Metro Corridors – Peak and Transfer Passengers

Overall difficulty: Easy to Moderate

Five metro corridors A-E report total weekday passenger journeys. The peak-hour percentage is the share of total journeys made during peak hours. Among peak-hour journeys, the transfer percentage is the share involving a change to another corridor. Assume all percentages apply exactly.

Corridor	Total journeys	Peak-hour (%)	Transfers among peak (%)
A	24000	35	18
B	18000	40	22
C	30000	25	16
D	22000	50	20
E	26000	30	24

Q25. What is the total number of peak-hour journeys across all five corridors? [TITA | Easy]

Q26. Which corridor has the largest number of peak-hour transfer journeys? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q27. How many non-transfer peak-hour journeys are there on Corridor E? [TITA | Moderate]

Q28. Peak-hour journeys on Corridor B are what percentage of peak-hour journeys on Corridor C? [MCQ | Moderate]

84%
96%
104%
120%

SET 2: Product Bundles – Feature Selection

Overall difficulty: Moderate to Difficult

A company will launch exactly four of six optional features P, Q, R, S, T and U in a software bundle. The following conditions apply:

– If P is selected, Q must also be selected.

– R and S cannot both be selected.

– Exactly one of T and U is selected.

– If Q is selected, R must be selected.

– S can be selected only if P is not selected.

Q29. How many valid four-feature bundles are possible? [TITA | Difficult]

Q30. Which feature is excluded from every valid bundle? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q31. Suppose P is included in the bundle. Which additional pair is then unavoidable? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q and R
Q and S
R and S
S and T

Q32. If U is selected, how many valid bundles are possible? [TITA | Moderate]

Q33. Which of the following is a valid bundle? [MCQ | Moderate]

P,Q,S,T
Q,R,S,T
P,Q,R,U
P,R,T,U

SET 3: Six Jobs on Two Machines – Processing Order

Overall difficulty: Difficult

Six jobs A, B, C, D, E and F are assigned to two machines X and Y, three jobs per machine. On each machine the three assigned jobs are processed in positions 1, 2 and 3. The following conditions apply:

– A and B are on different machines.

– C is on the same machine as A and is processed after A.

– D is on the same machine as B and is processed before B.

– E is processed in position 2 on its machine.

– F is on Machine X.

– A is not in position 2.

Q34. How many complete valid assignments and processing orders are possible? [TITA | Difficult]

Q35. If A is on Machine X, which job must be in position 1 on Machine Y? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q36. Which job can be in position 3 on Machine X? [MCQ | Difficult]

Q37. If A is on Machine Y, what position does C occupy on Machine Y? [TITA | Moderate]

SET 4: Learning Platform Cohorts – Completion and Upgrade

Overall difficulty: Moderate

Four learner cohorts W-Z joined an online programme. Completion rate is the percentage of enrolled learners who completed the core course. Upgrade rate is the percentage of completers who purchased an advanced module. Revenue shown is the fee per upgraded learner. Assume all percentages apply exactly.

Cohort	Enrolled	Completion (%)	Upgrade among completers (%)	Upgrade fee (Rs)
W	800	65	75	1200
X	1000	60	80	1000
Y	750	72	70	1500
Z	1000	55	90	1100

Q38. Across cohorts W, X, Y and Z, how many enrolled learners complete the core course in total? [TITA | Easy]

Q39. Which cohort has the largest number of upgraded learners? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q40. What is the upgrade revenue from Cohort Y, in rupees? [TITA | Moderate]

Q41. If the completion rate of Z rises from 55% to 60%, with its upgrade rate unchanged, how many additional learners upgrade? [TITA | Moderate]

Q42. Upgrade revenue per enrolled learner is highest in which cohort? [MCQ | Difficult]

SET 5: Research Panel – Committee Selection

Overall difficulty: Moderate to Difficult

A five-member research panel is chosen from seven candidates G, H, J, K, L, M and N. The following conditions apply:

– Exactly one of G and H is selected.

– J and K are either both selected or both not selected.

– If L is selected, M must be selected.

– N cannot be selected with H.

– At least one of L and N is selected.

Q43. How many valid panels are possible? [TITA | Difficult]

Q44. Which candidate is selected in every valid panel and is not one of the linked pair J-K? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q45. If H is selected, which candidate is forced specifically because H rules out N while at least one of L and N is required? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q46. If N is selected, how many valid panels are possible? [TITA | Moderate]

Section III – Quantitative Ability (QA)

22 Questions | 40 Minutes

Q47. A trader sells an article at a 20% discount on the marked price and still earns a 25% profit on cost. If the marked price is Rs 3,000, what is the cost price? [MCQ | Easy]

Rs 1,800
Rs 1,920
Rs 2,000
Rs 2,400

Q48. A tank contains 360 litres of a milk-water mixture in the ratio 2:7. How many litres of the mixture must be removed and replaced by water so that the final milk-water ratio becomes 1:8? [TITA | Difficult]

Q49. The average score of a group is 62. When 4 new students with an average score of 75 join, the group average becomes 64. How many students were originally in the group? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q50. At simple interest, the difference between the amounts after 5 years and after 3 years is Rs 1,920. If the annual interest rate is 12%, what is the principal in rupees? [TITA | Moderate]

Q51. A train 180 m long crosses a platform 270 m long in 30 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q52. Two runners move on a circular track of length 600 m in the same direction at 6 m/s and 4 m/s. After how many seconds will the faster runner next overtake the slower runner? [TITA | Moderate]

Q53. If x+y=14 and xy=40, what is x^2+y^2? [MCQ | Easy]

Q54. The roots of x^2-kx+18=0 are positive and differ by 3. What is k? [MCQ | Moderate]

Q55. How many integers x with -10 <= x <= 10 satisfy (x-2)/(x+3) > 0? [TITA | Difficult]

Q56. If log_2(x-1)=3, what is x? [MCQ | Easy]

Q57. What is the least positive integer n such that n leaves remainder 2 when divided by 5 and 5n leaves remainder 3 when divided by 7? [TITA | Difficult]

Q58. How many positive integers not exceeding 1000 have exactly three positive divisors? [MCQ | Difficult]

Q59. The least common multiple of two positive integers is 180 and their greatest common divisor is 6. If one integer is 30, what is the other integer? [TITA | Moderate]

Q60. What is the perpendicular distance from the point (3,-4) to the line 3x-4y+12=0? [MCQ | Moderate]

29/5
31/5
37/5
41/5

Q61. A chord of length 16 cm is drawn in a circle of radius 10 cm. What is the perpendicular distance, in cm, from the centre to the chord? [TITA | Moderate]

Q62. A circle has circumference 44 cm. Using pi=22/7, what is its area in square centimetres? [MCQ | Easy]

Q63. The interior angle of a regular polygon is 150 degrees. How many sides does the polygon have? [TITA | Moderate]

Q64. Eight distinct books are arranged on a shelf. In how many arrangements are three specified books not all consecutive? [MCQ | Difficult]

31,680
34,560
36,000
38,880

Q65. Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. What is the probability that their sum is a prime number? [MCQ | Moderate]

1/3
5/12
4/9
1/2

Q66. In how many ways can 6 people sit around a circular table if two particular people must sit together? [TITA | Difficult]

Q67. If a,b>0 and a+b=20, what is the maximum value of ab? [MCQ | Easy]

Q68. The positive roots p and q of x^2-10x+m=0 satisfy p/q + q/p = 3. What is m? [TITA | Difficult]

Answer Key

Question	Answer	Question	Answer	Question	Answer	Question	Answer
Q1	B	Q2	A	Q3	C	Q4	B
Q5	B	Q6	A	Q7	D	Q8	B
Q9	B	Q10	B	Q11	A	Q12	B
Q13	B	Q14	B	Q15	C	Q16	B
Q17	B	Q18	B	Q19	A	Q20	A
Q21	3	Q22	3	Q23	3	Q24	4
Q25	41900	Q26	D	Q27	5928	Q28	B
Q29	2	Q30	D	Q31	A	Q32	1
Q33	C	Q34	5	Q35	B	Q36	B
Q37	3	Q38	2210	Q39	D	Q40	567000
Q41	45	Q42	C	Q43	3	Q44	C
Q45	B	Q46	1	Q47	B	Q48	180
Q49	C	Q50	8000	Q51	C	Q52	300
Q53	C	Q54	C	Q55	15	Q56	C
Q57	37	Q58	C	Q59	36	Q60	C
Q61	6	Q62	C	Q63	12	Q64	C
Q65	B	Q66	48	Q67	C	Q68	20

Detailed Solutions

VARC Solutions

Q1. Answer: B. how it allocates perishable capacity, the basis of differentiation, and the transparency of the rule This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q2. Answer: A. To show that uniform pricing can itself create allocation advantages for some customers This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q3. Answer: C. Using hidden personal data to infer a customer’s maximum willingness to pay This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q4. Answer: B. cannot be stored for sale after the service opportunity passes This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q5. Answer: B. allowed coordination to be standardised across locations and institutions This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q6. Answer: A. local solar time becomes inconvenient when activities must be coordinated across places This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q7. Answer: D. Pre-mechanical communities were largely unordered because they lacked accurate clocks This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q8. Answer: B. a time reading gains practical force through shared institutional conventions This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q9. Answer: B. precision within a controlled setting and robustness across varying settings This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q10. Answer: B. Because precision about one setting does not reveal interactions with unrepresented conditions This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q11. Answer: A. the treatment effect survives variation in relevant conditions This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q12. Answer: B. Control and heterogeneity answer different scientific questions and should be matched to the inferential goal This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q13. Answer: B. where control over continued access is located This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q14. Answer: B. ownership can provide durability independent of the original seller This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q15. Answer: C. A researcher who needs dependable access to a specialised work twenty years later This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q16. Answer: B. A service optimised for present consumption may not create the institutional conditions required for archival continuity This option best matches the passage while preserving its qualifications.

Q17. Answer: B. Administrative quality depends on both rules and reliable procedures for dealing with cases that rules do not resolve cleanly. This choice captures the paragraph’s controlling idea or logical continuation without adding an unsupported claim.

Q18. Answer: B. Average error is sufficient only when overestimation and underestimation have similar consequences. This choice captures the paragraph’s controlling idea or logical continuation without adding an unsupported claim.

Q19. Answer: A. Sign design should therefore be tested in the conditions in which people actually need to use it. This choice captures the paragraph’s controlling idea or logical continuation without adding an unsupported claim.

Q20. Answer: A. Digitisation can expand access while still leaving some forms of inquiry dependent on the physical object. This choice captures the paragraph’s controlling idea or logical continuation without adding an unsupported claim.

Q21. Answer: 3. Sentence 3 breaks the thematic and logical flow; the other four sentences form a coherent paragraph.

Q22. Answer: 3. Sentence 3 breaks the thematic and logical flow; the other four sentences form a coherent paragraph.

Q23. Answer: 3. Sentence 3 breaks the thematic and logical flow; the other four sentences form a coherent paragraph.

Q24. Answer: 4. Sentence 4 breaks the thematic and logical flow; the other four sentences form a coherent paragraph.

DILR Solutions

Q25. Answer: 41900. Peak journeys: A 8400, B 7200, C 7500, D 11000, E 7800. Total = 41900.

Q26. Answer: D. Peak-hour transfers are A 1512, B 1584, C 1200, D 2200 and E 1872; Corridor D is largest.

Q27. Answer: 5928. E has 7800 peak journeys; 24% transfer = 1872, so non-transfer peak journeys = 7800-1872 = 5928.

Q28. Answer: B. B peak journeys = 7200 and C = 7500. 7200/7500 × 100 = 96%.

Q29. Answer: 2. The valid bundles are PQRT, PQRU.

Q30. Answer: D. S is absent from both valid bundles; P, Q and R appear in each.

Q31. Answer: A. If P is selected, Q is required; Q in turn requires R.

Q32. Answer: 1. Exactly one of the valid bundles contains U.

Q33. Answer: C. P,Q,R,U satisfies all five conditions.

Q34. Answer: 5. Exhaustive enumeration of machine membership and within-machine positions gives 5 valid complete arrangements.

Q35. Answer: B. If A is on X, then B and D are on Y with D before B; the constraints force D into position 1 on Y.

Q36. Answer: B. At least one valid arrangement places C in position 3 on Machine X; the other listed jobs cannot occupy that position under all constraints.

Q37. Answer: 3. When A is on Machine Y, A cannot be in position 2; E occupies position 2, and C must be after A on the same machine, so C is forced to position 3.

Q38. Answer: 2210. Completers: W 520, X 600, Y 540, Z 550; total = 2210.

Q39. Answer: D. Upgraded learners: W 390, X 480, Y 378, Z 495. Hence Z is largest.

Q40. Answer: 567000. Y has 540 completers; 70% upgrade = 378; revenue = 378×1500 = Rs 567000.

Q41. Answer: 45. A 5-point rise in completion on 1000 learners adds 50 completers; 90% upgrade, so 45 additional upgrades.

Q42. Answer: C. Revenue per enrolled learner: W Rs 585, X Rs 480, Y Rs 756, Z Rs 544.5; Y is highest.

Q43. Answer: 3. The valid panels are GJKLM, GJKMN, HJKLM.

Q44. Answer: C. J, K and M occur in every valid panel; among the options and excluding the linked J-K pair, M is the required candidate.

Q45. Answer: B. H excludes N. The rule requiring at least one of L and N therefore forces L; L then also requires M.

Q46. Answer: 1. Exactly one of the three valid panels contains N.

QA Solutions

Q47. Answer: B. Selling price = 3000×0.8 = 2400. Since SP = 1.25×CP, CP = 2400/1.25 = 1920.

Q48. Answer: 180. Initially milk = 80 litres. If x litres of mixture are removed, milk removed = 2x/9. Final milk must be 360/9 = 40 litres. Thus 80-2x/9=40, giving x=180.

Q49. Answer: C. Let the original number be n. Then 62n+4×75=64(n+4). Hence 62n+300=64n+256, so n=22.

Q50. Answer: 8000. The two-year interest difference is 1920. Thus P×12%×2=1920, so P=8000.

Q51. Answer: C. Distance = 450 m in 30 s = 15 m/s = 54 km/h.

Q52. Answer: 300. Relative speed = 2 m/s. One overtake requires gaining one full lap of 600 m, so time = 600/2 = 300 seconds.

Q53. Answer: C. x²+y²=(x+y)²-2xy=196-80=116.

Q54. Answer: C. If roots are p,q, then p+q=k and pq=18. (p-q)^2=k^2-72=9, so k^2=81. Positivity gives k=9.

Q55. Answer: 15. The expression is positive for x<-3 or x>2. In the given interval these are -10 through -4 (7 integers) and 3 through 10 (8 integers), total 15.

Q56. Answer: C. x-1=8, so x=9.

Q57. Answer: 37. Write n=2+5k. Then 5n=10+25k ≡ 3+4k (mod 7). Requiring remainder 3 gives 4k≡0 (mod 7), so the least k is 7 and n=37.

Q58. Answer: C. A number has exactly three divisors iff it is the square of a prime. We need primes p with p²<=1000, so p<=31. The 11 primes up to 31 give 11 such integers.

Q59. Answer: 36. Product of numbers = LCM×GCD = 1080. Other = 1080/30 = 36.

Q60. Answer: C. Distance = |3×3-4×(-4)+12|/sqrt(3²+(-4)²)=|9+16+12|/5=37/5.

Q61. Answer: 6. The perpendicular from the centre bisects the chord. Half-chord = 8. Hence distance = sqrt(10²-8²)=6.

Q62. Answer: C. 2πr=44 gives r=7. Area=πr²=154.

Q63. Answer: 12. Exterior angle=30°, so number of sides=360/30=12.

Q64. Answer: C. Total arrangements = 8! = 40320. If the three specified books are all consecutive, treat them as one block: 6!×3! = 4320. Required = 40320-4320 = 36000.

Q65. Answer: B. Prime sums are 2,3,5,7,11 with 1+2+4+6+2=15 outcomes out of 36. Probability = 15/36 = 5/12.

Q66. Answer: 48. Treat the pair as one block: 5 objects around a circle →4! arrangements; pair can switch in 2 ways. Total=48.

Q67. Answer: C. For fixed sum, product is maximised at a=b=10, giving 100.

Q68. Answer: 20. Here p+q=10 and pq=m. Also (p²+q²)/pq=3. Since p²+q²=100-2m, (100-2m)/m=3, giving 100=5m and m=20.

Management Education Guide